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Is that article seriously suggesting that after 12000rpm (200Hz) the ECU is guessing the RPM?
Is that article seriously suggesting that after 12000rpm (200Hz) the ECU is guessing the RPM?
Is that article seriously suggesting that after 12000rpm (200Hz) the ECU is guessing the RPM?
Semantics, but I'd reword that.Ah ok. I see it is mentioned in the original article.
The answer to your question is no. The ECU isn't calculating the RPM from a crank position signal, it's presented with an RPM signal which it samples at a rate of 200 times a second. So it knows the instantaneous value of RPM every 5 msecs. That means it can make a control decision every 5 msecs, but it doesn't mean it can make step changes in RPM at that rate, because there are time constants (and nonlinearities) in the overall system, which means the actual RPM will always lag behind the demand coming from the ECU.
Semantics, but I'd reword that.
The only way the engine presents a signal to the ECU is via the CPS. Which it (supposedly) samples at 200Hz.
Now ignition timing doesn't need 1rpm resolution, nor do most maps nestled in thr ECU, but to suggest a the imprecision of a 200Hz sampling rate can hide 100rpm is stupid.
Semantics, but I'd reword that.
The only way the engine presents a signal to the ECU is via the CPS. Which it (supposedly) samples at 200Hz.
Now ignition timing doesn't need 1rpm resolution, nor do most maps nestled in thr ECU, but to suggest a the imprecision of a 200Hz sampling rate can hide 100rpm is stupid.
As a result, the ECU isn't sampling every single revolution when the engine is at the rev limit. At 500 RPM, a Moto3 engine is spinning 225 times per second, and if Bom is correct, and the engine speed is being sampled a much less than 200Hz, then the ECU will be having to average out the signal to calculate the engine speed.
The main thing is that the sampling rate for the rev limiting loop is 200 Hz. The consequence of that, along with the non-linear way in which it's done, is that the regulation of RPM is a bit rough and that's all the article is saying I think.
How do they actually sense RPM by the way? I'm assuming there... I've worked with closed-loop digital control systems but not in automotive applications.
And what's the CPS?
This part is gobledy goop though:
So here it is CONFIRMED!!! No Breach of Moto3 Rev Limits by Honda in 2015
https://motomatters.com/news/2016/03/11/motogp_tech_director_finds_no_breach_of_.html
Honda out engineer KTM as suspected.
NO breach?
"...although there had been overshoots of the rev limit, these were very small and very brief."
"The time it took between the moment the ECU identified that the rev limit had been breached and the point at which it started to cut the ignition was long enough for their to be a very brief overrun of the allowed rev limit. These were, however, only "modest and temporary"."
13,501=breach=cheating.
'CONFIRMED'
NO breach?
"...although there had been overshoots of the rev limit, these were very small and very brief."
"The time it took between the moment the ECU identified that the rev limit had been breached and the point at which it started to cut the ignition was long enough for their to be a very brief overrun of the allowed rev limit. These were, however, only "modest and temporary"."
13,501=breach=cheating.
'CONFIRMED'
I'm just clowning around bro. But technically, 1 rev over is breach.Jum I work in the automotive industry. I currently have a fleet of MB Sprinters. A few years back, corp said to cap top speed @ 65 MPH. Guess what! They all peak at 66 MPH then stabilize at 65 MPH. When I was doing this back in the 90's on early electronic class 8 trucks, the results were the same.
So this is where compared to the rest of the paddock?